Physical force is what I am talking about.
Of course it is.
So then your original definition of "immoral" (initiation of force - unwanted physical contact against person or property) is inconsistent with your most recent stated position that theft without physical force is also immoral...?
My position is that your original definition of immoral is incorrect, and that your amended definition including the immorality of theft is the one I would prefer.
I just want to be clear that I understand what you mean when you say something is more or less moral than something else.